In previous post you stated that you tested two different vials of the Pfizer bivalent, is the DNA content in one of the vial significantly higher than the other one? Or both of the Pfizer vials have basically the same magnitude of DNA contents inside them? Also, do those DNA fragments generate bacterial/viral peptides that will attract immunity or activate T killer cells? (Are they immunogenic?) What will happen if they are integrated into the genome of cells? Will those cells died off?