Applying just a tad of good ole' Wittgensteinian analysis to Farrell's prescription reveals it to be utter nonsense. What exactly does it mean to "contextualize" a fact that does not support her obvious ideology? What would in principle count as "contextualizing" such a thing? Is it tantamount to disregarding it? Ok, then what? Farrell's position falls into a long line of intellectual psychobabble that sounds right, perhaps even commonsensical, but in application (which is where it counts) devolves into nothing more than ignoring facts the left does not like.