If you acknowledge that ivermectin reduced symptoms, then you have allowed one hurdle in the efficacy of ivermectin to be cleared.

It is noted that you allowed for it but did not inquire as to WHAT symptoms were alleviated.

Body aches, for example, are alleviated with ivermectin. What is the mechanism of action for such a response? Is it a direct action on the muscles, direct action on the sensory apparatus, direct action against the virus proper, allowing the body a reprieve in its battle against the invader? What is the explanation? Why is it dismissed offhandedly as irrelevant? It rather could be quite illustrative of possible mechanism of action against covid infection, but if no one deigns to study it, it remains conjecture only. But, it cannot simply be dismissed--not per scientific methods and retain a shred of credibility, anyway.