Using Scripture Alone, without reference to any external writings, how would we go about knowing that the historical-grammatical exegesis is the correct method?
The idea that doctrinal error exists because of the folly of the unsaved doesn't seem compatible with the idea that pure doctrine isn't needed for salvation. Can't impure doctrine also exist because of well-meaning, but mistaken people?
Finally, do you know, using Scripture Alone, who or what the Restrainer Of The Antichrist mentioned by the Apostle Paul in 2 Thessalonians 2: 6-7 is?
-Monadnock
Nov 17, 2024
at
8:47 PM
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