Although there is a wealth of evidence overwhelmingly showing that the death jabs are just that, wouldn't this data set discussed here in the article be more useful if it took into account the fact that the majority of UK citizens have been jabbed? I would like to see this data interpreted on a per capita or percentage of vaxxed/unvaxxed basis. It has also become evident that the classification of what constitutes a "COVID death" is subjective, at best, and has been purposely skewed since the very beginning, so the starting data for this argument may quite likely be invalid.