Lab studies with direct measurements are strong evidence for actual bisexuality. If you're a bisexual skeptic you might claim that if you average confused homosexuals with trendy heterosexuals, you'll end up with a bisexual average.
So, you could imagine that men who claim they're a Kinsey 2 (more homo that hetero attracted) might be an average of trendy homosexuals and trendy heterosexuals that averages out to bisexuality, but they cleverly test for that. Men at a Kinsey 2 respond more to men than men at a Kinsey 6 (exclusive heterosexual), and respond more to women than men at Kinsey 0 (exclusive homosexual).
In short, self reported bisexuality actually tracks physical response closely.
> Just guessing here, but the point is the objection "if it is not *exactly* 50%, they are lying" seems wrong to me.
Yep.
My point was just to say Thomas's argument was flawed. The claim is that
the gallup data say "bisexuals" are watered down by heterosexuals who use the "bisexual" label to seem trendy. But the gallup data imply the opposite.
If bisexuals have no gender preference, then the number of same sex relationships actually seems anomalously high.
Who knows what the *true* distribution of preferences is, but this even tracks in a lab environment.
https://www.pnas.org/doi/10.1073/pnas.2003631117
Lab studies with direct measurements are strong evidence for actual bisexuality. If you're a bisexual skeptic you might claim that if you average confused homosexuals with trendy heterosexuals, you'll end up with a bisexual average.
So, you could imagine that men who claim they're a Kinsey 2 (more homo that hetero attracted) might be an average of trendy homosexuals and trendy heterosexuals that averages out to bisexuality, but they cleverly test for that. Men at a Kinsey 2 respond more to men than men at a Kinsey 6 (exclusive heterosexual), and respond more to women than men at Kinsey 0 (exclusive homosexual).
In short, self reported bisexuality actually tracks physical response closely.